I wonder why the criticism the John Locke Foundation offered was illegitimate (as implied by the unsigned editorial comment). Is it because our name “implies a bias toward remaining fixed in the 1700 and 1800?s” [sic]? Perhaps it is because ideas from the 1700s and 1800s (not to mention the 1600s) could not possibly have any relevance to today’s world and therefore are illegitimate? In any regards, this was not taken up by the author.